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A&P Test 3 - Skeletal System - SET C

Multiple Choice: Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

The most important minerals stored in bones are: (p135)
A
sodium and phosphorus
D
calcium and iron
B
sodium and potassium
E
calcium and potassium
C
calcium and phosphorus
 

 2. 

Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized according to shape, is correct: (p136)
A
coxal bones - short bones
D
cranium - sesamoid bones
B
wrist and ankle bones - long bones
E
skull bones - flat bones
C
arm and leg bones - short bones
 

 3. 

The femur, tibia, humerus, and radius are all classified as: (p135-136)
A
irregular bones
D
sesamoid bones
B
compact bones
E
flat bones
C
long bones
 

 4. 

What type of tissue covers the epiphysis of bones and reduces friction in the joints: (p138)
A
yellow marrow
D
articular cartilage
B
periosteum
E
spongy bone
C
endosteum
 

 5. 

In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to: (p 138)
A
cause lengthwise growth in long bones
B
form blood cells
C
decrease friction at joint surfaces
D
store adipose tissue
E
store calcium and phosphorus
 

 6. 

The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that: (p138)
A
bone diameter is decreasing
D
bone is dead
B
bone length is no longer increasing
E
bone diameter is increasing
C
bone length is increasing
 

 7. 

What tiny canal connects central canals to lacunae in compact bone: (p138)
A
osteon
D
Haversian canal
B
lamella
E
perforating canal
C
canaliculus
 

 8. 

A shallow, basin-like depression in a bone often serving as an articular surface is a: (p 142)
A
meatus
D
foramen
B
fossa
E
groove
C
sinus
 

 9. 

A round or oval opening through a bone is a: (p142)
A
fissure
D
trochanter
B
facet
E
fossa
C
foramen
 

 10. 

Which of the following bones is NOT considered part of the appendicular skeleton: (p145)
A
sternum
D
femur
B
radius
E
scapula
C
metatarsals
 

 11. 

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains: (p138)
A
red marrow
D
osteoclasts and osteoblasts
B
yellow marrow and Sharpey's fibers
E
cartilage and lamellae
C
blood vessels and nerve fibers
 

 12. 

The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called: (p138)
A
trabeculae
D
Volkmann's canals
B
lacunae
E
lamellae
C
Haversian canals
 

 13. 

What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo: (p139)
A
hyaline cartilage
D
dense fibrous connective tissue
B
loose fibrous connective tissue
E
fibrocartilage
C
elastic connective tissue
 

 14. 

Which of the following is an example of a bone that forms from fibrous membranes: (p136/140)
A
the tibia
D
the femur
B
the radius
E
the parietal bone
C
the humerus
 

 15. 

The factor(s) that determine where bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are): (p140)
A
stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton
B
growth hormone
C
sex hormones
D
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
E
calcium level of the blood
 

 16. 

There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages: (p144)
1.bony callus formation 3.fibrocartilage callus formation
2.bone remodeling4.hematoma formation
A
1, 2, 3, 4
D
1, 3, 2, 4
B
4, 3, 2, 1
E
4, 3, 1, 2
C
1, 3, 4, 2
 

 17. 

Bone growth that occurs due to weight lifting at age 40 is most likely: (p140)
A
periosteum
B
appositional ossification
C
none since bones do not grow after adolescence
D
occurring at the epiphyseal plates
E
endochondrial ossification
 

 18. 

A compound fracture can be described as when: (p144)
A
adjacent bones fracture simultaneously
B
the broken bone is exposed to the outside
C
the bone is crushed
D
the bone is broken into many fragments
E
the broken bone ends are forced into each other
 

 19. 

A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a: (p145)
A
comminuted fracture
D
compression fracture
B
compound fracture
E
simple fracture
C
greenstick fracture
 

 20. 

A fracture that is common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n): (p145)
A
depressed fracture
D
open fracture
B
impacted fracture
E
spiral fracture
C
greenstick fracture
 

 21. 

A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n): (p145)
A
impacted fracture
D
spiral fracture
B
simple fracture
E
depressed fracture
C
compression fracture
 

 22. 

The axial skeleton contains: (p145)
1. skull
2. arms and legs
3. ribs and sternum
4. vertebrae
5. pelvic girdles
A
1, 2, 3, 5
D
2, 3, 4, 5
B
1, 3, 4, 5
E
2, 5
C
1, 3, 4
 

 23. 

The suture found between the parietal and temporal bone is the: (p147)
A
both the squamous suture and the sagittal suture
B
squamous suture
C
lambdoid suture
D
coronal suture
E
sagittal suture
 

 24. 

All of the following facial bones are paired except one. Which of the following is the unpaired facial bone: (p150)
A
vomer
D
palatine
B
maxillae
E
lacrimal
C
zygomatic
 

 25. 

The fibrous connections between the bones of a fetal skull are: (p152)
A
palate
D
sinuses
B
crista galli
E
alveolar margins
C
fontanels
 

 26. 

Which of these bones is associated with the hand: (p161)
A
tarsals
D
calcaneus
B
metatarsals
E
talus
C
metacarpals
 

 27. 

The hyoid bone is unique because: (p165)
A
it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone
B
it has no specific function
C
it is covered with mucosa
D
it largely consists of cartilage
E
it has an unusual shape
 

 28. 

The sella turcica is part of the _____ bone. (p149)
A
temporal
D
ethmoid
B
parietal
E
frontal
C
sphenoid
 

 29. 

How many true ribs do humans have: (p157)
A
three
D
five
B
fifteen
E
twelve
C
seven
 

 30. 

Transverse foramina are found in the: (p154)
A
thoracic vertebrae
D
cervical vertebrae
B
coccyx
E
lumbar vertebrae
C
sacrum
 

 31. 

The atlas is the: (p154)
A
second cervical vertebra
D
last lumbar vertebra
B
first thoracic vertebra
E
first cervical vertebra
C
part of the sacrum
 

 32. 

Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior: (p157)
A
true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
D
false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs
B
floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs
E
floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs
C
true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs
 

 33. 

The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the: (p156)
A
true ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process
B
manubrium, body, xiphoid process
C
jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint
D
ischium, ilium, coccyx
E
pubis, ischium, ilium
 

 34. 

Which two bones constitute the forearm: (p158)
A
radius and humerus
D
humerus and scapula
B
fibula and tibia
E
ulna and radius
C
femur and fibula
 

 35. 

The tailbone is the: (p156)
A
coccyx
D
pubis
B
sacrum
E
ischium
C
patella
 

 36. 

Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis: (p163)
A
the female iliac bones are less flared
B
the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller
C
the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker
D
the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less
E
the distance between the female ischial spines is greater
 

 37. 

The type of joint shown in Figure 5.4 is: (p168/170)
mc037-1.jpg

Figure 5.4
A
an amphiarthrotic joint
D
a fibrous joint
B
a suture
E
a cartilaginous joint
C
a synovial joint
 

 38. 

The wrist bones are actually: (p161)
A
carpals
D
metatarsals
B
tarsals
E
phalanges
C
metacarpals
 

 39. 

Which of these bones is NOT a long bone found in the leg: (p164)
A
metatarsals
D
patella
B
fibula
E
tibia
C
femur
 

 40. 

Bone formation can be referred to as: (p140)
A
rickets
D
osteoporosis
B
gout
E
osteoarthritis
C
ossification
 



 
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