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A&P Test 3 - Skeletal System - SET D

Multiple Choice: Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

The most important minerals stored in bones are: (p135)
A
sodium and phosphorus
D
calcium and potassium
B
calcium and phosphorus
E
calcium and iron
C
sodium and potassium
 

 2. 

Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized according to shape, is correct: (p136)
A
skull bones - flat bones
D
wrist and ankle bones - long bones
B
coxal bones - short bones
E
arm and leg bones - short bones
C
cranium - sesamoid bones
 

 3. 

The femur, tibia, humerus, and radius are all classified as: (p135-136)
A
long bones
D
irregular bones
B
flat bones
E
sesamoid bones
C
compact bones
 

 4. 

What type of tissue covers the epiphysis of bones and reduces friction in the joints: (p138)
A
spongy bone
D
articular cartilage
B
endosteum
E
periosteum
C
yellow marrow
 

 5. 

In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to: (p 138)
A
decrease friction at joint surfaces
B
cause lengthwise growth in long bones
C
store adipose tissue
D
store calcium and phosphorus
E
form blood cells
 

 6. 

The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that: (p138)
A
bone is dead
D
bone length is increasing
B
bone length is no longer increasing
E
bone diameter is increasing
C
bone diameter is decreasing
 

 7. 

What tiny canal connects central canals to lacunae in compact bone: (p138)
A
Haversian canal
D
lamella
B
perforating canal
E
canaliculus
C
osteon
 

 8. 

A shallow, basin-like depression in a bone often serving as an articular surface is a: (p 142)
A
groove
D
meatus
B
foramen
E
sinus
C
fossa
 

 9. 

A round or oval opening through a bone is a: (p142)
A
foramen
D
fissure
B
trochanter
E
facet
C
fossa
 

 10. 

Which of the following bones is NOT considered part of the appendicular skeleton: (p145)
A
metatarsals
D
femur
B
radius
E
sternum
C
scapula
 

 11. 

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains: (p138)
A
red marrow
D
osteoclasts and osteoblasts
B
blood vessels and nerve fibers
E
cartilage and lamellae
C
yellow marrow and Sharpey's fibers
 

 12. 

The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called: (p138)
A
lacunae
D
lamellae
B
Haversian canals
E
trabeculae
C
Volkmann's canals
 

 13. 

What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo: (p139)
A
elastic connective tissue
D
fibrocartilage
B
hyaline cartilage
E
dense fibrous connective tissue
C
loose fibrous connective tissue
 

 14. 

Which of the following is an example of a bone that forms from fibrous membranes: (p136/140)
A
the femur
D
the tibia
B
the parietal bone
E
the humerus
C
the radius
 

 15. 

The factor(s) that determine where bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are): (p140)
A
stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton
B
growth hormone
C
calcium level of the blood
D
sex hormones
E
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
 

 16. 

There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages: (p144)
1.bony callus formation 3.fibrocartilage callus formation
2.bone remodeling4.hematoma formation
A
1, 3, 4, 2
D
4, 3, 1, 2
B
1, 3, 2, 4
E
1, 2, 3, 4
C
4, 3, 2, 1
 

 17. 

Bone growth that occurs due to weight lifting at age 40 is most likely: (p140)
A
appositional ossification
B
periosteum
C
occurring at the epiphyseal plates
D
endochondrial ossification
E
none since bones do not grow after adolescence
 

 18. 

A compound fracture can be described as when: (p144)
A
the bone is crushed
B
adjacent bones fracture simultaneously
C
the bone is broken into many fragments
D
the broken bone is exposed to the outside
E
the broken bone ends are forced into each other
 

 19. 

A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a: (p145)
A
simple fracture
D
compression fracture
B
compound fracture
E
greenstick fracture
C
comminuted fracture
 

 20. 

A fracture that is common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n): (p145)
A
spiral fracture
D
depressed fracture
B
greenstick fracture
E
open fracture
C
impacted fracture
 

 21. 

A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n): (p145)
A
simple fracture
D
compression fracture
B
impacted fracture
E
spiral fracture
C
depressed fracture
 

 22. 

The axial skeleton contains: (p145)
1. skull
2. arms and legs
3. ribs and sternum
4. vertebrae
5. pelvic girdles
A
1, 3, 4, 5
D
1, 3, 4
B
1, 2, 3, 5
E
2, 3, 4, 5
C
2, 5
 

 23. 

The suture found between the parietal and temporal bone is the: (p147)
A
squamous suture
B
lambdoid suture
C
both the squamous suture and the sagittal suture
D
sagittal suture
E
coronal suture
 

 24. 

All of the following facial bones are paired except one. Which of the following is the unpaired facial bone: (p150)
A
lacrimal
D
palatine
B
maxillae
E
zygomatic
C
vomer
 

 25. 

The fibrous connections between the bones of a fetal skull are: (p152)
A
crista galli
D
palate
B
fontanels
E
sinuses
C
alveolar margins
 

 26. 

Which of these bones is associated with the hand: (p161)
A
metacarpals
D
metatarsals
B
talus
E
tarsals
C
calcaneus
 

 27. 

The hyoid bone is unique because: (p165)
A
it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone
B
it is covered with mucosa
C
it has an unusual shape
D
it largely consists of cartilage
E
it has no specific function
 

 28. 

The sella turcica is part of the _____ bone. (p149)
A
parietal
D
frontal
B
ethmoid
E
sphenoid
C
temporal
 

 29. 

How many true ribs do humans have: (p157)
A
fifteen
D
seven
B
three
E
five
C
twelve
 

 30. 

Transverse foramina are found in the: (p154)
A
coccyx
D
cervical vertebrae
B
lumbar vertebrae
E
thoracic vertebrae
C
sacrum
 

 31. 

The atlas is the: (p154)
A
first cervical vertebra
D
first thoracic vertebra
B
second cervical vertebra
E
part of the sacrum
C
last lumbar vertebra
 

 32. 

Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior: (p157)
A
floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs
D
true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs
B
false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs
E
floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs
C
true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
 

 33. 

The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the: (p156)
A
true ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process
B
pubis, ischium, ilium
C
ischium, ilium, coccyx
D
jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint
E
manubrium, body, xiphoid process
 

 34. 

Which two bones constitute the forearm: (p158)
A
humerus and scapula
D
fibula and tibia
B
femur and fibula
E
ulna and radius
C
radius and humerus
 

 35. 

The tailbone is the: (p156)
A
coccyx
D
patella
B
ischium
E
sacrum
C
pubis
 

 36. 

Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis: (p163)
A
the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less
B
the female iliac bones are less flared
C
the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller
D
the distance between the female ischial spines is greater
E
the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker
 

 37. 

The type of joint shown in Figure 5.4 is: (p168/170)
mc037-1.jpg

Figure 5.4
A
a cartilaginous joint
D
a fibrous joint
B
an amphiarthrotic joint
E
a suture
C
a synovial joint
 

 38. 

The wrist bones are actually: (p161)
A
metatarsals
D
phalanges
B
metacarpals
E
carpals
C
tarsals
 

 39. 

Which of these bones is NOT a long bone found in the leg: (p164)
A
femur
D
tibia
B
fibula
E
metatarsals
C
patella
 

 40. 

Bone formation can be referred to as: (p140)
A
osteoarthritis
D
osteoporosis
B
ossification
E
gout
C
rickets
 



 
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