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A&P Test 3 - Skeletal System - SET E

Multiple Choice: Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

The most important minerals stored in bones are: (p135)
A
calcium and iron
D
calcium and phosphorus
B
sodium and phosphorus
E
calcium and potassium
C
sodium and potassium
 

 2. 

Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized according to shape, is correct: (p136)
A
wrist and ankle bones - long bones
D
coxal bones - short bones
B
arm and leg bones - short bones
E
cranium - sesamoid bones
C
skull bones - flat bones
 

 3. 

The femur, tibia, humerus, and radius are all classified as: (p135-136)
A
compact bones
D
long bones
B
irregular bones
E
sesamoid bones
C
flat bones
 

 4. 

What type of tissue covers the epiphysis of bones and reduces friction in the joints: (p138)
A
yellow marrow
D
periosteum
B
endosteum
E
articular cartilage
C
spongy bone
 

 5. 

In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to: (p 138)
A
store adipose tissue
B
form blood cells
C
store calcium and phosphorus
D
cause lengthwise growth in long bones
E
decrease friction at joint surfaces
 

 6. 

The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that: (p138)
A
bone is dead
D
bone diameter is decreasing
B
bone length is no longer increasing
E
bone length is increasing
C
bone diameter is increasing
 

 7. 

What tiny canal connects central canals to lacunae in compact bone: (p138)
A
perforating canal
D
Haversian canal
B
lamella
E
osteon
C
canaliculus
 

 8. 

A shallow, basin-like depression in a bone often serving as an articular surface is a: (p 142)
A
sinus
D
foramen
B
meatus
E
groove
C
fossa
 

 9. 

A round or oval opening through a bone is a: (p142)
A
facet
D
fissure
B
fossa
E
trochanter
C
foramen
 

 10. 

Which of the following bones is NOT considered part of the appendicular skeleton: (p145)
A
femur
D
metatarsals
B
sternum
E
scapula
C
radius
 

 11. 

The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains: (p138)
A
cartilage and lamellae
D
blood vessels and nerve fibers
B
osteoclasts and osteoblasts
E
red marrow
C
yellow marrow and Sharpey's fibers
 

 12. 

The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called: (p138)
A
lacunae
D
trabeculae
B
Volkmann's canals
E
lamellae
C
Haversian canals
 

 13. 

What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo: (p139)
A
elastic connective tissue
D
hyaline cartilage
B
dense fibrous connective tissue
E
loose fibrous connective tissue
C
fibrocartilage
 

 14. 

Which of the following is an example of a bone that forms from fibrous membranes: (p136/140)
A
the parietal bone
D
the femur
B
the radius
E
the tibia
C
the humerus
 

 15. 

The factor(s) that determine where bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are): (p140)
A
sex hormones
B
growth hormone
C
stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton
D
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
E
calcium level of the blood
 

 16. 

There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages: (p144)
1.bony callus formation 3.fibrocartilage callus formation
2.bone remodeling4.hematoma formation
A
4, 3, 2, 1
D
1, 3, 4, 2
B
4, 3, 1, 2
E
1, 3, 2, 4
C
1, 2, 3, 4
 

 17. 

Bone growth that occurs due to weight lifting at age 40 is most likely: (p140)
A
endochondrial ossification
B
none since bones do not grow after adolescence
C
appositional ossification
D
periosteum
E
occurring at the epiphyseal plates
 

 18. 

A compound fracture can be described as when: (p144)
A
the bone is crushed
B
the broken bone ends are forced into each other
C
the broken bone is exposed to the outside
D
the bone is broken into many fragments
E
adjacent bones fracture simultaneously
 

 19. 

A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a: (p145)
A
compound fracture
D
compression fracture
B
simple fracture
E
greenstick fracture
C
comminuted fracture
 

 20. 

A fracture that is common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n): (p145)
A
impacted fracture
D
greenstick fracture
B
spiral fracture
E
open fracture
C
depressed fracture
 

 21. 

A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n): (p145)
A
impacted fracture
D
depressed fracture
B
compression fracture
E
simple fracture
C
spiral fracture
 

 22. 

The axial skeleton contains: (p145)
1. skull
2. arms and legs
3. ribs and sternum
4. vertebrae
5. pelvic girdles
A
1, 3, 4, 5
D
2, 3, 4, 5
B
1, 3, 4
E
1, 2, 3, 5
C
2, 5
 

 23. 

The suture found between the parietal and temporal bone is the: (p147)
A
squamous suture
B
lambdoid suture
C
sagittal suture
D
coronal suture
E
both the squamous suture and the sagittal suture
 

 24. 

All of the following facial bones are paired except one. Which of the following is the unpaired facial bone: (p150)
A
palatine
D
maxillae
B
lacrimal
E
zygomatic
C
vomer
 

 25. 

The fibrous connections between the bones of a fetal skull are: (p152)
A
alveolar margins
D
crista galli
B
sinuses
E
fontanels
C
palate
 

 26. 

Which of these bones is associated with the hand: (p161)
A
talus
D
tarsals
B
calcaneus
E
metacarpals
C
metatarsals
 

 27. 

The hyoid bone is unique because: (p165)
A
it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone
B
it has an unusual shape
C
it is covered with mucosa
D
it has no specific function
E
it largely consists of cartilage
 

 28. 

The sella turcica is part of the _____ bone. (p149)
A
parietal
D
temporal
B
ethmoid
E
frontal
C
sphenoid
 

 29. 

How many true ribs do humans have: (p157)
A
three
D
twelve
B
five
E
fifteen
C
seven
 

 30. 

Transverse foramina are found in the: (p154)
A
sacrum
D
lumbar vertebrae
B
coccyx
E
cervical vertebrae
C
thoracic vertebrae
 

 31. 

The atlas is the: (p154)
A
last lumbar vertebra
D
second cervical vertebra
B
first thoracic vertebra
E
first cervical vertebra
C
part of the sacrum
 

 32. 

Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior: (p157)
A
floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs
D
true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs
B
floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs
E
false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs
C
true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
 

 33. 

The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the: (p156)
A
ischium, ilium, coccyx
B
pubis, ischium, ilium
C
manubrium, body, xiphoid process
D
jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint
E
true ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process
 

 34. 

Which two bones constitute the forearm: (p158)
A
radius and humerus
D
ulna and radius
B
humerus and scapula
E
femur and fibula
C
fibula and tibia
 

 35. 

The tailbone is the: (p156)
A
ischium
D
coccyx
B
sacrum
E
patella
C
pubis
 

 36. 

Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis: (p163)
A
the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller
B
the distance between the female ischial spines is greater
C
the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less
D
the female iliac bones are less flared
E
the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker
 

 37. 

The type of joint shown in Figure 5.4 is: (p168/170)
mc037-1.jpg

Figure 5.4
A
a suture
D
a cartilaginous joint
B
a fibrous joint
E
a synovial joint
C
an amphiarthrotic joint
 

 38. 

The wrist bones are actually: (p161)
A
tarsals
D
metatarsals
B
metacarpals
E
carpals
C
phalanges
 

 39. 

Which of these bones is NOT a long bone found in the leg: (p164)
A
femur
D
metatarsals
B
patella
E
tibia
C
fibula
 

 40. 

Bone formation can be referred to as: (p140)
A
osteoporosis
D
gout
B
rickets
E
osteoarthritis
C
ossification
 



 
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